2026 Valid Cybersecurity-Practitioner Real Exam Questions, practice Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner
Latest Success Metrics For Actual Cybersecurity-Practitioner Exam (Updated 227 Questions)
NEW QUESTION # 27
In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?
- A. False-negative
- B. False-positive
- C. True-negative
- D. True-positive
Answer: B
Explanation:
In anti-malware, a false positive incorrectly identifies a legitimate file or application as malware. A false negative incorrectly identifies malware as a legitimate file or application. In intrusion detection, a false positive incorrectly identifies legitimate traffic as a threat, and a false negative incorrectly identifies a threat as legitimate traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 28
What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)
- A. Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call
- B. Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive
- C. Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page
- D. Convincing an employee that they are also an employee
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Social engineering attacks manipulate human trust to gain unauthorized access or information. Convincing an employee that an attacker is also an employee builds rapport, lowering defenses for information disclosure or credential sharing. Similarly, impersonating a company representative and requesting unrelated personal data exploits authority bias to deceive victims. These tactics exploit psychological vulnerabilities rather than technical flaws and are prevalent initial steps in multi-stage attacks. Palo Alto Networks highlights the importance of training, multi-factor authentication, and behavior-based threat detection to mitigate social engineering risks effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)
- A. They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.
- B. They are a defense against spam attacks.
- C. They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.
- D. They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
SaaS financial botnets are often sold as kits, enabling attackers to license and reuse the malicious code easily.
These kits allow attackers to build and operate their own botnets, often targeting financial data or systems.
Financial botnets are typically smaller but more targeted than spamming or DDoS botnets. Botnets are not a defense mechanism, but rather a threat.
NEW QUESTION # 30
What does SIEM stand for?
- A. Security Infosec and Event Management
- B. Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring
- C. Security Information and Event Management
- D. Standard Installation and Event Media
Answer: C
Explanation:
Originally designed as a tool to assist organizations with compliance and industry-specific regulations, security information and event management (SIEM) is a technology that has been around for almost two decades
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)
- A. Threat Prevention
- B. Data Exposure Control
- C. DevOps
- D. Denial of Service
- E. Data Loss Prevention
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
Prisma SaaS is a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution that helps secure and manage SaaS applications. It provides advanced capabilities in risk discovery, data loss prevention, compliance assurance, data governance, user behavior monitoring, and advanced threat prevention12. The three services that are part of Prisma SaaS are:
Data Loss Prevention: This service helps prevent the leakage or exposure of sensitive data stored in SaaS applications. It allows you to define data patterns, policies, and actions to protect your data from unauthorized access or sharing3.
Data Exposure Control: This service helps identify and remediate data exposure risks in SaaS applications. It scans your data at rest and classifies it based on its sensitivity and exposure level. It also provides recommendations and remediation actions to reduce the risk of data breaches4.
Threat Prevention: This service helps detect and block malicious activities and threats in SaaS applications. It leverages the WildFire and AutoFocus threat intelligence services to analyze user and file activity and identify indicators of compromise. It also provides alerts and response actions to mitigate the impact of threats5.
:
Prisma SaaS Overview
Prisma SaaS - Palo Alto Networks
Data Loss Prevention
Data Exposure Control
Threat Prevention
NEW QUESTION # 32
The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?
- A. data
- B. infrastructure
- C. physical
- D. platform
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data security is the only type of security that the customer is fully responsible for when using a SaaS application. Data security refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access, use, modification, deletion, or disclosure. Data security includes aspects such as encryption, backup, recovery, access control, and compliance12. The customer is responsible for ensuring that their data is secure in transit and at rest, and that they comply with any applicable regulations or policies regarding their data.
The other types of security - physical, platform, and infrastructure - are the responsibility of the SaaS provider. Physical security refers to the protection of the hardware and facilities that host the SaaS application. Platform security refers to the protection of the software and services that run the SaaS application. Infrastructure security refers to the protection of the network and systems that support the SaaS application. The SaaS provider is responsible for ensuring that these layers of security are maintained and updated, and that they meet the required standards and certifications34. Reference:
SaaS and the Shared Security Model
A Guide to SaaS Shared Responsibility Model
The Shared Responsibility Model for Security in The Cloud (IaaS, PaaS & SaaS) Shared responsibility in the cloud
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?
- A. Archiving
- B. sandboxing
- C. Active monitoring
- D. Correlating
Answer: C
Explanation:
A User Entity Behavior Analysis (UEBA) tool performs active monitoring by continuously analyzing the behavior of users and entities to detect anomalies that may indicate insider threats, compromised accounts, or malicious activity. It uses machine learning and analytics to identify unusual patterns in real time.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.
Which type of phishing attack does this represent?
- A. Pharming
- B. Angler phishing
- C. Vishing
- D. Whaling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Whaling is a targeted phishing attack aimed at high-profile individuals, such as executives. The attacker impersonates a trusted entity (e.g., IT department) to trick the executive into revealing sensitive credentials. This is a form of spear phishing specifically focused on "big fish" targets.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?
- A. Container security
- B. Code security
- C. Network security
- D. SaaS security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Code security focuses on identifying vulnerabilities and misconfigurations early in the development process. It uses tools like static code analysis and infrastructure-as-code (IaC) scanning to ensure secure coding and configuration before deployment.
NEW QUESTION # 36
From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?
- A. MineMeld
- B. Unit 52
- C. PAN-DB
- D. BrightCloud
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you enable URL Filtering, all web traffic is compared against the URL Filtering database, PAN-DB, which contains millions of URLs that have been grouped into about 65 categories.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?
- A. They typically attack only once.
- B. They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.
- C. They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.
- D. They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a sophisticated, sustained cyberattack in which an intruder establishes an undetected presence in a network in order to steal sensitive data over a prolonged period of time. APTs are usually carried out by well-funded, experienced teams of cybercriminals that target high-value organizations, such as governments, military, or corporations. APTs have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks, as they often use advanced techniques to evade detection, move laterally within the network, and establish multiple entry points and backdoors. APTs are not interested in causing immediate damage or disruption, but rather in achieving long-term goals, such as espionage, sabotage, or theft of intellectual property. Therefore, option B is the correct answer among the given choices123 Reference:
1: Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician - Palo Alto Networks
2: 10 Palo Alto Networks PCCET Exam Practice Questions - CBT Nuggets
3: What Is an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)? - Cisco
4: What is an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)? - CrowdStrike
5: What Is an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)? - Kaspersky
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?
- A. technology
- B. interfaces
- C. business
- D. people
Answer: B
Explanation:
The six pillars include:
1. Business (goals and outcomes)
2. People (who will perform the work)
3. Interfaces (external functions to help achieve goals)
4. Visibility (information needed to accomplish goals)
5. Technology (capabilities needed to provide visibility and enable people)
6. Processes (tactical steps required to execute on goals)
NEW QUESTION # 39
In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?
- A. weaponization
- B. exploitation
- C. delivery
- D. reconnaissance
Answer: A
Explanation:
"Weaponization: Next, attackers determine which methods to use to compromise a target endpoint. They may choose to embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files such as a PDF or Microsoft Word document or email message."
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which Palo Alto Networks tool is used to prevent endpoint systems from running malware executables such as viruses, trojans, and rootkits?
- A. AutoFocus
- B. Expedition
- C. App-ID
- D. Cortex XDR
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is a cloud-based, advanced endpoint protection solution that combines multiple methods of prevention against known and unknown malware, ransomware, and exploits. Cortex XDR uses behavioral threat protection, exploit prevention, and local analysis to stop the execution of malicious programs before an endpoint can be compromised. Cortex XDR also enables remediation on the endpoint following an alert or investigation, giving administrators the option to isolate, terminate, block, or quarantine malicious files or processes. Cortex XDR is part of the Cortex platform, which provides unified visibility and detection across the network, endpoint, and cloud. Reference:
Cortex XDR - Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Protection - Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Security - Palo Alto Networks
Preventing Malware and Ransomware With Traps - Palo Alto Networks
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?
- A. Advanced WildFire
- B. Advanced DNS Security
- C. Advanced URL Filtering
- D. Advanced Threat Prevention
Answer: D
Explanation:
Advanced Threat Prevention is the Palo Alto Networks solution that has replaced legacy Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS). It offers inline, ML-powered threat detection and evasion-resistant inspection to block sophisticated threats in real time, going beyond traditional signature-based IPS.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?
- A. 192.168.19.16
- B. 192.168.19.32
- C. 192.168.19.0
- D. 192.168.19.64
Answer: A
Explanation:
To find the subnet that the host 192.168.19.36/27 belongs to, we need to convert the IP address and the subnet mask to binary form and perform a logical AND operation. The /27 notation means that the subnet mask has 27 bits of ones and 5 bits of zeros. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224. The binary form of the IP address and the subnet mask are:
IP address: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100100 Subnet mask: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000 The logical AND operation gives us the network prefix:
Network prefix: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100000
To get the subnet address, we convert the network prefix back to decimal form:
Subnet address: 192.168.19.32
The subnet address is the first address in the subnet range. To find the last address in the subnet range, we flip the bits of the subnet mask and perform a logical OR operation with the network prefix:
Flipped subnet mask: 00000000.00000000.00000000.00011111 Logical OR: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00111111 The last address in the subnet range is:
Last address: 192.168.19.63
The subnet range is from 192.168.19.32 to 192.168.19.63. The host 192.168.19.36 belongs to this subnet. Therefore, the correct answer is B. 192.168.19.16, which is the second address in the subnet range.
:
IP Subnet Calculator
Subnet Calculator - IP and CIDR
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong? - VCEguide.com
NEW QUESTION # 43
What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)
- A. Detecting and correlating anomalies
- B. Identifying misconfigurations
- C. Unifying cloud provider services
- D. Assessing severity levels
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Assessing severity levels - UEBA data helps prioritize incidents by evaluating the risk and severity based on user and entity behavior.
Detecting and correlating anomalies - UEBA continuously analyzes activity to identify abnormal behavior and correlate anomalies that may indicate insider threats or compromised accounts.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which two statements describe the Jasager attack? (Choose two.)
- A. It tries to get victims to conned at random.
- B. It actively responds to beacon reguests.
- C. The victim must manually choose the attacker s access point
- D. The attacker needs to be wilhin close proximity of the victim.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A Jasager attack is a type of wireless man-in-the-middle attack that exploits the way mobile devices search for known wireless networks. A Jasager device will respond to any beacon request from a mobile device by saying "Yes, I'm here", pretending to be one of the preferred networks. This way, the Jasager device can trick the mobile device into connecting to it, without the user's knowledge or consent. The Jasager device can then intercept, modify, or redirect the traffic of the victim. For this attack to work, the attacker needs to be within close proximity of the victim, and the victim must have at least one known network in their preferred list. The victim does not need to manually choose the attacker's access point, nor does the attacker try to get victims to connect at random. Reference: Wireless Man in the Middle - Palo Alto Networks, Man-in-the-middle attacks with malicious & rogue Wi-Fi access points - Privacy Guides
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a "ports first" data security solution in a traditional data center?
- A. You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.
- B. You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.
- C. You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.
- D. You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A "ports first" data security solution is a traditional approach that relies on port numbers to identify and filter network traffic. This approach has several limitations and security weaknesses, such as12:
Port numbers are not reliable indicators of the type or content of network traffic, as they can be easily spoofed or changed by malicious actors.
Port numbers do not provide any visibility into the application layer, where most of the attacks occur.
Port numbers do not account for the dynamic and complex nature of modern applications, which often use multiple ports or protocols to communicate.
Port numbers do not support granular and flexible policies based on user identity, device context, or application behavior. One of the security weaknesses that is caused by implementing a "ports first" data security solution in a traditional data center is that you may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter. For example, if you have a web server that runs on port 80, you may have to open up port 80 on your firewall to allow incoming traffic. However, this also means that any other service or application that uses port 80 can also access your datacenter, potentially exposing it to attacks. Moreover, opening up multiple ports increases the attack surface area of your network, as it creates more entry points for attackers to exploit34. Reference: Common Open Port Vulnerabilities List - Netwrix, Optimize security with Azure Firewall solution for Azure Sentinel | Microsoft Security Blog, Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by ..., Which item accurately describes a security weakness ... - Exam4Training
NEW QUESTION # 46
What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?
- A. To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors
- B. To secure public cloud infrastructures only
- C. To secure serverless functions across the application
- D. To provide automation for application creation in the cloud
Answer: C
Explanation:
Workload security in a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP) is designed to secure containers, VMs, and serverless functions throughout the entire application lifecycle - from development to runtime - by detecting and blocking vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and runtime threats.
NEW QUESTION # 47
What is the function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool?
- A. To provide organizations with expertise for monitoring network devices
- B. To monitor activities and behaviors for investigation of security incidents on user devices
- C. To integrate data from different products in order to provide a holistic view of security posture
- D. To ingest alert data from network devices
Answer: B
Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) tools monitor, record, and analyze endpoint activity to detect suspicious behavior, investigate incidents, and respond to threats on user devices such as laptops and desktops.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?
- A. virus
- B. Trojan horse
- C. ransomware
- D. worm
Answer: D
Explanation:
A worm is a type of malware that replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network. Unlike a virus, a worm does not need a host program or human interaction to infect other devices. A worm can consume network bandwidth, slow down the system performance, or deliver a malicious payload, such as ransomware or a backdoor123. Reference: Types of Malware & Malware Examples - Kaspersky, 10 types of malware + how to prevent malware from the start, Computer worm - Wikipedia A worm replicates through the network while a virus replicates, not necessarily to spread through the network.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?
- A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
- B. Identity and Access Management (IAM)
- C. User-ID
- D. User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Identity and access management (IAM) is a software service or framework that allows organizations to define user or group identities within software environments, then associate permissions with them. The identities and permissions are usually spelled out in a text file, which is referred to as an IAM policy.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?
- A. EDR
- B. IDS
- C. SIEM
- D. DLP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) technologies provide comprehensive visibility and real-time threat prevention directly on endpoint devices. EDR continuously monitors process activities, file executions, and system calls to detect malware, suspicious behaviors, and zero-day threats at the source. Palo Alto Networks' Cortex XDR platform exemplifies this by correlating endpoint telemetry with network and cloud data to provide a holistic defense against attacks. Operating locally on endpoints allows EDR to prevent lateral movement and respond to threats quickly, filling security gaps that network-centric tools alone cannot address. This endpoint-level insight is critical to identifying sophisticated threats that initiate or manifest on user devices.
NEW QUESTION # 51
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