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NEW QUESTION # 33
What is feature of Autonomous Digital Experience Management (ADEM)?
- A. It provides customized forms to collect and validate necessary parameters from the requester.
- B. It applies configuration changes and provides credential management, role-based controls, and a playbook repository.
- C. It provides IT teams with single-pane visibility that leverages endpoint, simulated, and real-time user traffic data to provide the most complete picture of user traffic flows possible.
- D. It natively ingests, normalizes, and integrates granular data across the security infrastructure at nearly half the cost of legacy security products attempting to solve the problem.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 34
What happens when SaaS Security sees a new or unknown SaaS application?
- A. It uses machine learning (ML) to classify the application.
- B. It forwards the application for WildFire analysis.
- C. It extends the branch perimeter to the closest node with high performance.
- D. It generates alerts regarding changes in performance.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 35
Cloud-delivered App-ID provides specific identification of which two applications? (Choose two.)
- A. web-browsing
- B. private
- C. custom
- D. unknown-tcp
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 36
In which step of the Five-Step Methodology for implementing the Zero Trust model are the services most valuable to the company defined?
- A. Step 1: Define the protect surface
- B. Step 4: Create the Zero Trust policy
- C. Step 5: Monitor and maintain the network
- D. Step 2: Map the transaction flows
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 37
A customer currently has 150 Mbps of capacity at a site. Records show that, on average, a total of 30 Mbps of bandwidth is used for the two links.
What is the appropriate Prisma SD-WAN license for this site?
- A. 25 Mbps
- B. 175 Mbps
- C. 50 Mbps
- D. 250 Mbps
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 38
In which step of the Five-Step Methodology for implementing the Zero Trust model is the Kipling Method relevant?
- A. Step 3: Architect a Zero Trust network
- B. Step 5: Monitor and maintain the network
- C. Step 2: Map the transaction flows
- D. Step 4: Create the Zero Trust policy
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which App Response Time metric is the measure of network latency?
- A. Server Response Time (SRT)
- B. UDP Response Time (UDP-TRT)
- C. Network Transfer Time (NTTn)
- D. Round Trip Time (RTT)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which two services are part of the Palo Alto Networks cloud-delivered security services (CDSS) package?
(Choose two.)
- A. virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)
- B. security information and event management (SIEM)
- C. Internet of Things (IoT) Security
- D. Advanced URL Filtering (AURLF)
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 41
How does the secure access service edge (SASE) security model provide cost savings to organizations?
- A. The compact size of the components involved reduces overhead costs, as less physical space is needed.
- B. The increased complexity of the model over previous products reduces IT team staffing costs.
- C. The content inspection integration allows third-party assessment, which reduces the cost of contract services.
- D. The single platform reduces costs compared to buying and managing multiple point products.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 42
In which step of the Five-Step Methodology of Zero Trust are application access and user access defined?
- A. Step 1: Define the Protect Surface
- B. Step 3: Architect a Zero Trust Network
- C. Step 5: Monitor and Maintain the Network
- D. Step 4: Create the Zero Trust Policy
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 43
How can a network engineer export all flow logs and security actions to a security information and event management (SIEM) system?
- A. Use a zone-based firewall to export directly through application program interface (API) to the SIEM.
- B. Use the centralized flow data-export tool built into the controller.
- C. Enable syslog on the Instant-On Network (ION) device.
- D. Enable Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) on the Instant-On Network (ION) device.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which statement describes the data loss prevention (DLP) add-on?
- A. It prevents phishing attacks by controlling the sites to which users can submit valid corporate credentials.
- B. It enables data sharing with third-party tools such as security information and event management (SIEM) systems.
- C. It is a centrally delivered cloud service with unified detection policies that can be embedded in existing control points.
- D. It employs automated policy enforcement to allow trusted behavior with a new Device-ID policy construct.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which product enables websites to be rendered in a sandbox environment in order to detect and remove malware and threats before they reach the endpoint?
- A. DNS Security
- B. network sandbox
- C. remote browser isolation
- D. secure web gateway (SWG)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 46
What is a disadvantage of proxy secure access service edge (SASE) when compared to an inline SASE solution?
- A. Proxies force policy actions to be treated as business decisions instead of compromises due to technical limitations.
- B. Proxy solutions require an unprecedented level of interconnectivity.
- C. Exclusive use of web proxies leads to significant blind spots in traffic and an inability to identify applications and threats on non-standard ports or across multiple protocols.
- D. Teams added additional tools to web proxies that promised to solve point problems, resulting in a fragmented and ineffective security architecture.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which component of the secure access service edge (SASE) solution provides complete session protection, regardless of whether a user is on or off the corporate network?
- A. single-pass architecture (SPA)
- B. threat prevention
- C. DNS Security
- D. Zero Trust
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which elements of Autonomous Digital Experience Management (ADEM) help provide end-to-end visibility of everything in an organization's environment?
- A. scanning of all traffic, ports, and protocols
- B. data collected from endpoint devices, synthetic monitoring tests, and real-time traffic
- C. alerts, artifacts, and MITRE tactics
- D. integrated threat intelligence management, automated distribution to enforcement points at scale, full ticket mirroring
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which product draws on data collected through PAN-OS device telemetry to provide an overview of the health of an organization's next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment and identify areas for improvement?
- A. Device Insights
- B. DNS Security
- C. Cloud Identity Engine (CIE)
- D. security information and event management (SIEM)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 50
What is a key benefit of CloudBlades?
- A. identification of port-based rules so they can be converted to application-based rules without compromising application availability
- B. automation of UI workflow without any code development and deployment of Prisma SD-WAN ION devices
- C. configuration of the authentication source once instead of for each authentication method used
- D. utilization of near real-time analysis to detect previously unseen, targeted malware and advanced persistent threats
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 51
What allows enforcement of policies based on business intent, enables dynamic path selection, and provides visibility into performance and availability for applications and networks?
- A. Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)
- B. Instant-On Network (ION) devices
- C. Identity Access Management (IAM) methods
- D. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 52
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The PSE-SASE certification exam is ideal for IT professionals who are responsible for designing, implementing, and managing network security solutions. It is also a valuable certification for security professionals who want to demonstrate their expertise in the latest security technologies and best practices. By earning this certification, you will be able to demonstrate your expertise in SASE technologies and differentiate yourself from other IT professionals.
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