[Mar 18, 2026] AAPC-CPC Exam Dumps, AAPC-CPC Practice Test Questions
Free AAPC-CPC Study Guides Exam Questions and Answer
NEW QUESTION # 32
Code the excision of a large goiter extending into the chest cavity using a transthoracic approach.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
A goiter is an abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland. The removal of that gland is a thyroidectomy, represented by CPT codes 60240-60271. CPT 60270 is selected based on the approach used. CPT codes 21602 and 32900 are obtained by using the coding crosswalk for resection ofthe chest wall and describe the removal of a tumor and one or more ribs. CPT 32140 is a thoracotomy, which involves pulling apart the ribs to reach and remove a lung cyst.
NEW QUESTION # 33
What is/are the code(s) for the repair of an incarcerated hernia in the inner groin requiring mesh placement on a 32-year-old female patient?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are several different types ofhernias that are categorized by their location. A hernia located in the inner groin is inguinal, and a hernia located on the outer groin is femoral. The repair of an incarcerated inguinal hernia on a 32 -year-old patient is coded to CPT 49507. Hernia mesh is used to reduce the risk of recurrence, and implantation of it is inclusive to an inguinal, umbilical, femoral, and laparoscopic hernia repair.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Code the following note:
A male patient with a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented to the emergency room 3 days ago with tachycardia and shortness of breath. He was intubated and admitted with acute respiratory failure (ARE) due to an acute exacerbation of COPD. Upon follow-up with the patient today, dark sputum was noted in the intubation tube, and testing confirmed aspiration pneumoni a. I will start him on 875 mg of amoxicillin every 12 hours and follow up tomorrow.
- A. 99232, 144.1, 196.00, 169.0, ROO.O
- B. 99231, 169.0, 196.00, 144.1
- C. 99232, 196.00, 144.1, 169.0
- D. 99233, 169.0
Answer: C
Explanation:
This documentation supports a decision-making of moderate complexity (number and complexity of problems addressed: high; amount and/or complexity of data to be reviewed and analyzed: minimal: diagnostic procedures and management examples: moderate), making CPT
99232 the most accurate description of services rendered. Regarding selection and sequencing of the diagnoses, always select the reason for the admission as the primary diagnosis code. In this case, the patient was admitted for ARF 096.00). The secondary code would be the underlying COPD
044.1), and conditions arising after admission would be tertiary and so forth. Tachycardia would not be reported because it is a symptom of ARF and symptoms are not reportable when the underlying disease has been confirmed.
NEW QUESTION # 35
If past family and social history is not documented for the evaluation and management of a new patient, what is the highest level of service that can be coded?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Effective January I, 2023, new evaluation and management (E/ M) guidelines were implemented for inpatient, outpatient, home health, and preventative medicine services. These new guidelines remove the Patients' history and examination as elements in selecting the level of code.
Instead, E/M services are leveled based on the medical decision-making process. Therefore, in this scenario, the highest level of service that can be billed for a new patient with no documented past medical, family, and social history is 99205, CPT codes 99213 and 99214 are reported for established patients.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A patient has a colonoscopy in which the provider removes three polyps from the transverse colon. The first polyp is removed by means of a hot snare technique, and the following two polyps are removed using hot biopsy forceps. What CPT code(s) should be reported for this encounter?
- A. 45385, 45384-59, 45384-59
- B. 0
- C. 1
- D. 45385, 45384-59
Answer: D
Explanation:
When coding colonoscopies, remember that the number of removal techniques is what has a bearing on code selection and not the number of lesions and/or polyps that are being removed. In this case, two techniques are being used: I) the snare technique (CPT 45385) and 2) the hot biopsy forceps technique (CPT 45384). Modifier 59 is appended onto the secondary code to indicate that separate polyps '.vere removed by two different techniques. CPT 45388 is reported when a provider uses any methods other than snare and hot biopsy forceps to remove a lesion and/or polyp.
NEW QUESTION # 37
What would NOT be included in critical care services?
- A. Pulse oximetry
- B. Gastric intubation
- C. Ventilator management
- D. CPR
Answer: D
Explanation:
CPR is not a bundled service to critical care and should be reported separately with CPT code
92950.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which procedure uses a thin tube to examine the abdominal organs through a small incision in the belly?
- A. Laparotomy
- B. Gastroscopy
- C. Laparoscopy
- D. Endoscopy
Answer: C
Explanation:
A gastroscopy is a procedure that uses an endoscope to examine the stomach and some parts of the intestinal tract An endoscopy uses a thin tube through a natural opening in the body to examine the digestive tract. A laparotomy is a large incision in the belly to gain access into the abdominal cavity.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which term describes a procedure in which real-time moving images of an organ are displayed on a screen so that a physician can examine its function and/or structure?
- A. Tomography
- B. Computed tomography
- C. Fluoroscopy
- D. Magnetic resonance imaging
Answer: C
Explanation:
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses magnets, radio waves, and a computer to display detailed pictures of the inside of the body. Tomography uses waves of energy to create three- dimensional, computer-generated images of any internal structure. Computed tomography is cross- sectional images of the body obtained by a narrow beam of x-rays that quickly rotates around the body.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A patient is having difficulties breast-feeding and receives a lactation consultation by a certified lactation consultant under the general supervision of a mid-level practitioner. How should this service be reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
CPT 98960 is used by nonphysician healthcare professionals who provide education to patients that enable them to self-manage established conditions. CPT 99078 could also be used to report lactation services, but these are specifically rendered in a group setting. CPT 98966 is used for healthcare management via the telephone, and CPT 99211 is not considered the most appropriate descriptor for services rendered in this instance.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A 55-year-old patient is admitted into the hospital for dialysis to treat ESRD. On day 13, the admitting physician spends 25 minutes discussing new management options for the patient's hypertension before sending a nurse to initiate the hemodialysis procedure. What CPT and ICD-IO-CM codes should be reported?
- A. 90937, 112.0, N18.6, Z99.2
- B. 90937, 99232, 110, N18.6, Z99.2
- C. 90935, N18.6, Z99.2
- D. 99232, 112.0, N18.6, Z99.2
Answer: D
Explanation:
CPT codes 90935-90937 require the presence of a physician. If a physician visits the patient prior to or after the dialysis treatment but does not document their presence during the hemodialysis services, bill only the appropriate evaluation and management code (CPT 99232).
Additionally, unless otherwise stated, diagnosis selection should reflect the causal relationship that exists bet'.veen hypertension and ESRD (112.-, N18.-)-they should not be reported as unrelated.
ICD-IO-CM Z99.2 is appended to indicate hemodialysis status.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which healthcare professional may NOT report medical nutrition therapy?
- A. Dietician
- B. Endocrinologist
- C. Nutritionist
- D. Registered nurse
Answer: B
Explanation:
Medical nutrition therapy describes nutritional assessments and interventions in a face-to- face or group patient setting and is reported with CPT codes 97802-97804. These codes are used by nonphysician healthcare professionals only. When a physician provides nutritional advice, a preventative service or evaluation and management code should be reported.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Alzheimer's disease with early onset usually presents itself in which age group?
- A. 50-60 years old
- B. 30-40 years old
- C. 60-70 years old
- D. 40-50 years old
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to CPT, the rarest form of Alzheimer's disease occurs before 30 years of age.
Early onset Alzheimer's disease usually affects those between the age of 40 and 50 years old. The most common form of Alzheimers disease occurs after the age of 65 and is largely contributed to a combination of environmental and genetic factors.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which is NOT a type of injection through which contrast is administered?
- A. Intra-articular
- B. Intrathecal
- C. Intramuscular
- D. Intravascular
Answer: C
Explanation:
Per CPT guidelines, administration of contrast materials is given through the following routes: intravascular, intra-articular, and intrathecal. Alternate routes also include orally and/or rectally; however, the "contrast administration alone does not qualify as a study 'with contrast'"
NEW QUESTION # 45
When seen next to a diagnosis code, the term "Excludes 20 indicates that the condition excluded is not part of the condition represented by the code and that the patient may have both conditions simultaneously.
- A. True
- B. b False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The statement is true. The term "Excludes 2" shows that two seemingly related conditions can be billed in the same encounter. See Section I of the Coding Guidelines in the ICD-IO-CM 2020 edition for reference.
NEW QUESTION # 46
A new, 29-year-old female patient is seen for a preventative visit and receives counseling that totals 30 minutes about contraceptive management. How would the provider code the CPT code(s) for this visit?
- A. 99385, 99402-25
- B. 99385, 99203-25
- C. 99385, 99417, 99417
- D. 0
Answer: D
Explanation:
If 99402 is part of a more complex service, it would not be separately identifiable, thus eliminating answer A Because 99385 includes counseling/anticipatory guidance/risk factor reduction interventions, the additional 30 minutes that the provider spent discussing contraceptives would not be considered a significant, separately identifiable E/M service, eliminating answer B. Last, because time is not a factor when selecting a preventative service,
99417 reflected in answer C, indicating a prolonged outpatient E/M service totaling 30 minutes would not apply.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which service would NOT be covered under Medicare part A?
- A. Inpatient hospital care
- B. Home health care
- C. Hospice care
- D. Observation hospital care
Answer: D
Explanation:
Observation hospital care is provided to patients who are not sick enough to be admitted.
Therefore, it is considered an outpatient service and is covered under Medicare part B.
NEW QUESTION # 48
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